Omitting the Name above all Names in prayer - Is that biblical?
Something is nagging at me, so I have started a poll. Before I get the general opinion on the question, I want to remind myself of the following scriptures.
Joh 14:1314 I will do whatever you ask in my name, so that the Father may be glorified in the Son. If you ask me for anything in my name, I will do it.”
Col 3:17 And whatever you do, in word or deed, do everything in the name of the Lord Jesus, giving thanks to God the Father through him.
Speaking in the Name above all Names is an act of boldness…
Act 4:13-19 Now when they saw the boldness of Peter and John and found out that they were uneducated and ordinary men, they were amazed and realized that they had been with Jesus. And seeing the man who was healed standing with them, they could not say anything against them. So they ordered them to leave the Council and began to discuss the matter among themselves. They said, “What should we do with these men? For it’s obvious to everybody living in Jerusalem that an unmistakable sign has been done by them, and we can’t deny it. But to keep it from spreading any further among the people, let us warn them never again to speak to anyone in this name.” So they called them in and ordered them not to speak or teach at all in the name of Jesus. But Peter and John answered them, “You must decide whether it is right in the sight of God to listen to you rather than God,
Act 5:2832 He said, “We gave you strict orders not to teach in his name, didn’t we? Yet you have filled Jerusalem with your teaching and are determined to bring this man’s blood on us!” But Peter and the apostles answered, “We must obey God rather than men. The God of our ancestors raised Jesus to life after you hung him on a tree and killed him. God has exalted to his right hand this very man as our Leader and Savior in order to give repentance and forgiveness of sins to Israel. We are witnesses of these things, and so is the Holy Spirit, whom God has given to those who keep on obeying him.”
Php 2:9-11 For which cause, God also hath exalted him and hath given him a name which is above all names: That in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those that are in heaven, on earth, and under the earth: And that every tongue should confess that the Lord Jesus Christ is in the glory of God the Father.
I have started a new poll on this subject just to get an idea of where the majority actually sit on this topic. I personally think it is an important issue; clearly it was important enough to be included in the book of acts. Please pray and think carefully about what is written in the Word about the name of Jesus; this name is the name of our saviour!
Ask yourself this… isn’t the name of Jesus always going to offend a non-believer anyway? The only people that this name doesn’t offend are born again Christians.
There is room for your own comment (up to 4000 characters) on this poll if you choose “other” as an answer.
Here are some more “polls” if you’re interested 
Col 3:17 And whatever you do, in word or deed, do everything in the name of the Lord Jesus, giving thanks to God the Father through him. What does this mean for on it hangs the condemnation or aquittal of us all in the instance before us.
I want to note before continuing that there is a legal maxim made famous by Sir Thomas Moore (who was later beheaded for his personal stand on faith) which says this: “Silence impies consent”. Yet, often times our love, our devotion, our faith, calls us to question what someone’s silence means.
Now that stance, implying consent by silence, can be taken two ways depending on the intent of the one remaining silent. For the secet person of the heart, only truly does God know. How does one do a “deed” in the name of the Lord Jesus? Does one need to establish a record of action that would loudly proclaim that name? Is that enough? And by what criteria could we judge such a man or woman?
And let us look at how we pray “in his name”. It is interesting to note that even in the scriptures, the act of calling on Jesus name is also inclusive of intent: note the way the phrase “in His name” is always interpreted in the following scriptures:
“We gave you strict orders not to teach in his name, didn’t we?
and again…
“They said, “What should we do with these men? For it’s obvious to everybody living in Jerusalem that an unmistakable sign has been done by them, and we can’t deny it. But to keep it from spreading any further among the people, let us warn them never again to speak to anyone in this name.” ”
In each of these instances, the phrase, “in his name” and “in this name” is understood by reference before it and by implication of situation to mean Jesus as the person to whom they are referring.
When I went back over the prayer made by Dr. Zacharias, I noted his reference here to many implications that given his record of action and what is understood by those outside the church as well as those inside demonstrates precisely to whom he is referring:
“Holy Father,..”
“…Yet, we are so stubborn and resistant.
Have mercy upon us, Lord….”
“…In Your Holy Name.
AMEN.”
Who else could he be referring to? Was anyone there in doubt? If we were to reverse this viewpoint to looking at his actions and his speeches afterwards and upgrade the scenario in which we live to one of a police state which did not allow preaching in the name of Jesus, is anyone of us reading this blog in doubt that Dr. Zacharias would have been arrested on account of his actions and words that day?
If I were sitting on a jury trying those under suspician of preaching in the name of Jesus, I would have to condemn the man utterly, for nothing in his course of action that day nor in his past would be enough to save him.
I ask that we consider this viewpoint as an exercise in order to see the wholeness of a man’s character and give us a glimpse of how God is viewing each one of us.
Am I, and almost everyone I have ever known who at one point or another in an occassional prayer over a meal or otherwise, has used the phrase “In his name” or “In his holy name” or “in thy name” or “in thy Holy name”, not to have been understood to know that they were following the scriptural injunction to use Jesus’ name when making a request or giving thanks to the Father?
The fact that the established criteria for the National Day of Prayer is and has been well-known to all previous participants (who I have not heard or yet read like condemnation of) was not enough to change and make a special point of doing something different in verbal usage that we in our private worship would not have made a point of as well. The fact that this usage goes on in thousands of private homes over meals and in places of worship and has for hundreds of years is enough to either condemn us or to redeem Dr. Zacharias in the court of public opinion.
Considering that we have a living record of prayers having been answered by such form of petition and thanksgiving by our heavenly Father, Jehovah, whose proper name we do not always use either but is understood by intent both by Him and by us proves it is enough evidence to reconsider any negative judgement in the instance of Dr. Zacharias’ recent case.
God bless you all,
Melly
[...] Just letting you know that 100% of you thus far think that there is no biblical reason to omit the name of Jesus in prayer from pragmatic reasons. [...]